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ALB
02-21-2002, 12:28 PM
I have a recipe that calls for 2 cups of dried blacks, but I don't have the time or inclination to soak them. Do 2 cups of drained canned beans equal 2 cups of dried beans? I've always wondered this but have never seen it spelled out anywhere!

Thanks!

Jessica
02-21-2002, 12:31 PM
Beans expand when they cook, so two cups of dried beans will equal more than two cups of canned beans.

The equivalents are different for each bean, but I expect to get between 2 and 4 cups of cooked beans for every cup of dried. If you use one can (2 cups) of cooked beans for 2 cups of dried, you will not have nearly enough beans for your recipe.

funnybone
02-21-2002, 02:06 PM
Depending on what you are making, the EXACT qty does not matter. Adding more here, less there, is part of cooking. Just add what you think is right. But I agree, you will need more canned for each cup of dry.

wallycat
02-21-2002, 02:15 PM
Dried beans usually triple in size (approx.) so 2 cups dried would give you the equivalent of about 6 cups canned or about 3 cans..give or take a few ounces.

funnybone
02-21-2002, 02:19 PM
Speaking of beans, Cook's illustrated has ratings on canned beans. Here is the article (kidney beans and white beans)

http://www.cooksillustrated.com/show_document.asp?iDocumentID=814&iBDC=9768

gertdog
02-21-2002, 02:30 PM
According to www.vegparadise.com, one cup of dried black beans equals 2 1/4 cups cooked.

I remember that Cook's Illustrated article on canned beans! Goya is my favorite brand.