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kloduha
02-13-2001, 03:50 PM
Hi! Here's my question- I have a recipe that calls for dried beans a - what is the substitution rate if I want to use canned beans instead? any help is appreciated. Thanks so much!

SusieO
02-13-2001, 03:53 PM
I think a can of beans is about 1 1/2 cups.
Hope this helps!

Ohioan
02-14-2001, 08:05 AM
If you're asking about the beans in their dried state, 1/3 cup of dried beans usually makes about a cup of cooked beans. But that's figuring the beans alone. A can of beans usually contains a lot of liquid, so, as SusieO says, you're getting about a cup and a half of actual beans.

Confused? Just figure on the 15-oz can of beans to be the cooked equivalent of about 1/2 cup of dried beans before cooking.

Cheers from Beanland,
Phoebe

Luiza
02-14-2001, 09:24 AM
Now I know why I always had too many beans for the sauce when I was substituting cooked dried beans for canned beans! I forgot about the liquid. Duh. http://www.cookinglight.com/bbs/redface.gif

Thank you, Phoebe, the Bean Queen!

Luiza